Friday 28 December 2012

Bank of Maharashtra PO 3rd Phase Result Out

Bank of Maharashtra PO 3rd Phase-Result Bank of Maharashtra Declared PO(probationary officer)  Recruitment 3rd Phase Result. Interview Phase III from 15.11.2012 to 20.11.2012. After successful Candidates announced as a selected .Who eyeing for this results Can check here : THIRD LIST OF SELECTED PROBATIONARY OFFICERS IN JMGS-I – PROJECT 2012

Thursday 27 December 2012

ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK Recruitment 2012-13 through IBPS RRB

ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK Recruitment 2012-13 through IBPS RRB

ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK Inviting application for post of Officer  in Junior Management (Scale I)  who have  appeared at the Common  Written Examination for  RRBs  conducted by IBPS in  September 2012 and  declared  qualified.further details like educational qualification,age,IBPS RRB cut off marks experience etc..watch below and download notification under the post 

Important Dates to remember

Payment of Application Fees 28-12-2012 to 08-01-2013
Opening date for Online Registration 28-12-2012
Last Date for Online Registration 08-01-2013

DETAILS OF VACANCIES:

ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK vacancy numbers

SELECTION PROCEDURE:
Officer Scale-I :- Selection will be made on the basis of performance in RRBs- Common  Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in  September 2012 and Personal
Interview.   Merit list of the candidates for final selection based on  Total Weighted  Standard Scores (TWSS) obtained by them in CWE of IBPS and Personal Interview will be prepared in descending order under each SC/ST/OBC/UR category.


PERSONAL INTERVIEW: Depending on the number of vacancies, Bank will call from among  who have applied to bank, the number, equivalent to three times the number of vacancies short-listed  based on their Total Weighted Standard Scores (TWSS). Remaining applicants, if any will not  receive an interview call from the Bank. The total marks for Interview will be 30. The minimum qualifying marks for Interview will be  12 (10.5 for SC/ST). The merit list of successful candidates in each category shall be  made separately on the basis of combined performance in the written test and interview.


INTERVIEW CENTRE: The  Interview will  be held at the following centre and the address of the venue will  be  advised in the call letters. The address of the venue will also  be displayed in the Bank‟s  website one week before the date for commencement of Interview.  Interview Center:- BANDA (U.P.)

Download Recruitment ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK  Notification 2012-13

Download challan for ALLAHABAD UP GRAMIN BANK recruitment

All The best

Andhra pradesh Grameena Vikas bank Recruitment 2012-13 through IBPS RRB

Good news for IBPS RRB Qualifiers Andhra pradesh Grameena Vikas inviting Application for Office assistant and Officer scale recruitment from  who have appeared at  the Common Written Examination for RRBs conducted by IBPS in September 2012 and declared qualified

Important dates :

Payment of Application Fees 31-12-2012 to 11-01-2013
Opening date for Online Registration 31-12-2012
Last Date for Online Registration  11-01-2013

DETAILS OF VACANCIES:

Andhra-pradesh-grameena-vikas-bank-recruitment-vacancy

HOW TO APPLY : Candidates are required to apply online through the Bank’s website  “apgvbank.in”.    No
other means/ mode of application will be accepted

Download Challan for Recruitment 2012-13

Download recruitment notification PDF format

Monday 24 December 2012

UCO BANK PO 2nd phase first Selected list

Uco Bank

phase first list of selected candidates for the post of Probationary Officers JMGS-I Recruitment Project No.1 - 2012-13

Candidates check your results

Monday 17 December 2012

South Malabar Garmin Bank – Apply Online for 175 Officer & Office Asst Posts 2013

SOUTH MALABAR GRAMIN BANK Recruitment South Malabar Garmin Bank  Inviting online application for Office assistant and Officer scale jobs 2012-13 through IBPS RRB CWE 2012. All Eligible candidates  can apply through online .who successfully qualified IBPS RRB CWE (Common written Exam) conducted September 2013. Candidates can apply from 17-12-2012 to   07-01-2013. All Educational qualification and Important dates can check below

Important dates to remember :

Payment of Application Fees 17-12-2012 to 07-01-2013
Opening date for Online Registration  17-12-2012
Closing Date for Online Registration   07-01-2013

Vacancy Position details :

South Malabar Garmin Bank  Recruitment 2013

Pay Scale Details :

SCALE OF PAY

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS & EXPERIENCE (as on 01-06-2012)

Office Assistant (Multipurpose) - Degree in any discipline from a  recognized University or its equivalent  Essential: Proficiency in local language

Officer   Junior Management (Scale-I)- Degree in any discipline from a  recognized University or its equivalent  Essential: Proficiency in local language

Selection Procedure : based on personnel interview

Further Details complete Notification PDF Format Download here

Download Challan for Apply to fee payment: download here

Apply Online here for office assistant and officer scale job here : apply here 

All the best !!!

Stay with us for more updates

SBH PO Recruitment 2012-13 coming Soon

SBH PO Recruitemnt 2012-13 1000 post Guarantee News from SBH –State bank of Hyderabad were Going to Conduct Recruitment of Probationary Officer post of 1000 vacancy for all over India. This confirmed news from published one of leading News paper In India Return to frontpage Business Line today 17-December 2012.what is news Says Check below

Mr M. Bhagavantha Rao, Managing Director, SBH told today with Business line already 2200 clerk recruitment exam Conducted and final process Going on to Join Soon and SBH will recruit 1000 PO(Probationary officer /Management trainee ) soon Notification will out

News Source : Business Line News

Saturday 15 December 2012

General Awareness questions for Bank Clerk Exam

Here distributing some general awareness question for bank exam specially for clerk lets practice us for good in Exam. All the best

1. Who retained the top spot on Forbes' fourth annual ranking of "The World's Most Powerful People", which was released in December 2012?

(A) Barack Obama

(B) Angela Merkel

(C) Vladimir Putin

(D) Bill Gates (E) David Cameron

2. Who will be honored with a lifetime achievement Grammy award in Los Angeles on February 10, 2013?

(A) A.R.Rehman

(B) Pandit Ravi Shankar

(C) Norah Jones

(D) Pandit Vishwamohan Bhatt

(E) Ustad Zakir Hussain

3. Rakesh Mohan, former Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India, has taken charge as Executive Director on the board of?

(A) World Bank (B) ADB

(C) IMF (D) OECD (E) WTO

4. Which of the following full forms is not correct?

(A) ECS - Electronic Clearing Service

(B) TPF - Trade Policy Forum

(C) CCEA-Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(D) LAF - Liquidity Adjustment Facility

(E) FTA - Full Trade Agreement

5. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to Malala Yousafzai?

(A) Malala Yousafzai is a teenage education activist in the Swat district of Pakistan.

(B) She won Pakistan's first National Youth Peace Prize in 2011. It was subsequently renamed the National Malala Peace Prize in her honor.

(C) On October 9, 2012 she was shot by Taliban gunmen and is being treated in hospital in Birmingham, UK.

(D) UN Secretary General Ban Ki-moon declared November 10 as Malala Day.

(E) She won the 2012 Right Livelihood Award.

6. Ahmed Nazif was sentenced to three years in prison for corruption in September 2012. He was the Prime Minister of which of the following countries from 2004 to 2011?

(A) Syria (B) Yemen

(C) Egypt (D) Libya

(E) Lebanon

7. Who received the US Congressi-onal Gold Medal on September 19, 2012?

(A) Dalai Lama (B) Angela Merkel

(C) Gordon Brown

(D) Aung San Suu Kyi

(E) Dilma Rousseff

8. Which film was given the prestigious Golden Lion Award for the best film at the 69th Venice Film Festival on September 8, 2012?

(A) Pieta (B) The Master

(C) Fill the Void (D) The Artist

(E) None of these

9. The United Nations Program on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS) has appo-inted who among the following as its International Goodwill Ambassador?

(A) Aamir Khan (B) Aishwarya Rai

(C) Priyanka Chopra

(D) Shah Rukh Khan

(E) Vidya Balan

10. Who has become the first woman to command the new Boeing 787 Dreamliner which landed in New Delhi in September 2012?

(A) Alka Shukla

(B) M.P. Shumathi

(C) Nivedita Bhasin

(D) Saudamini Deshmukh

(E) None of these

11. Forbes released the list of 400 richest Americans recently. Bill Gates remained at the top position for the 19th consecutive year. Who is at second position?

(A) Steve Ballmer

(B) Warren Buffet (C) Paul Allen

(D) Jeff Bezos (E) Larry Ellison

12. Paul McCartney has been awarded France's highest public award, the French Legion of Honor, for his services to music. He belongs to?

(A) USA (B) Canada

(C) Australia (D) England

(E) Argentina

13. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Prize is named after the founder Direc-tor General of?

(A) IISC (B) BARC

(C) CSIR (D) ISI

(E) IARI

14. Which of the following topped the QS World University Ranki-ngs released in September 2012?

(A) Massachusetts Institute of Technology, USA

(B) University of Cambridge, UK

(C) Harvard University, USA

(D) University of Oxford, UK

(E) Yale University, USA

15. Which team won the Irani Cup Cricket in Bangalore in September 2012?

(A) Rest of India (B) Rajasthan

(C) Karnataka (D) Hyderabad

(E) Mumbai

16. The Super Fight League (SFL) is promoted by IPL team Rajasthan Royals' co-owner Raj Kundra and Bollywood actor Sanjay Dutt. Who is the brand ambassador of SFL?

(A) Devendro Singh

(B) Vijender Singh

(C) MC Mary Kom

(D) Vikas Krishnan

(E) None of these

17. The Ig Nobel Prizes are a parody of the Nobel Prizes and given each year for ten unusual or trivial achievements in scientific research. They are given in?

(A) Sweden (B) Norway

(C) Philippines (D) USA (E) UK

18. Which of the following countries is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?

(A) China (B) Russia

(C) India (D) Kyrgyzstan

(E) Uzbekistan

19. Which of the following is a private bank in India?

(A) UCO Bank (B) IDBI Bank

(C) United Bank of India

(D) HDFC Bank

(E) Syndicate Bank

20. 'Touch Down' is a term used in the game of?

(A) Hockey (B) Cricket

(C) American Football

(D) Golf (E) Ice Hockey

 

Answers KEY

1)A 2)B 3)C 4)E 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) C

IBPS Clerk expected cut off 2012

Expected cut off for IBPS clerk 2012 Expected cut off for IBPS clerk 2012-2013 : overall review after studied some famous blogs and forums will announcing expected cut off marks analysis  for IBPS clerk online exam. cut off marks for General category and OBC and all Survey says Compete analysis. previously no common interview so lot of candidates are qualified but now IBPS .

post your marks expected on after review discussion on this poll

online surveys
 
l

Let us Discuss here about exam

Friday 14 December 2012

IBPS Clerk Common Interview

IBPS clerk  Common interview 2013Institute of Banking Personnel Selection-IBPS has also Conducts Common interview for clerk and PO jobs. IBPS now release tentatively Personnel Interview common dates for PO. that same system will follow for Clerk Also. IBPS should be release results for IBPS Clerk CWE 2012 in 2013 march end. and after Official notification come Immediately Dispatched score cards to Candidates . now appearing future plan of IBPS. Now 20 public sector banks will follow Common Interview for Clerk recruitment 2013 . there is no changes in this process. chances get through hard work only due to hugely Competition on Banking sector. move your steps as brilliant way to achieve timely. when PO common interview ends and announcing results of IBPS Common interview then start IBPS Clerk recruitment 2013 Common personnel interview procedure.

Check here more details on Common interview selection procedure and Important tips for interview

so keep active and invite new year with brightly………

All the Best      

Central Bank of India Clerk Recruitment 2012 through IBPS

Central Bank of India clerk recruitment 2012 through IBPS Good news for Qualified IBPS Clerk CWE 2011. Central Bank of India Coming with Clerk Notification for 2012 . All eligible candidates can apply through online for further step and final selection on Central Bank of India bank clerk position. valid IBPS clerk 2011 score card can apply

Online Application start from 22-12-2012 December onwards ..and Further details like Vacancy position and Educational qualification,IBPS cut off marks,age details  visit us

Vacancy position: 3196 clerical vacancies

Central Bank of India clerk recruitment 2012-13 Important Dates :

Payment of Application Fees / Intimation charges 22-12-2012 to 07-01-2013
Opening  Date for Online Registration 22-12-2012
Closing Date for Online Registration (including candidates from far- flung areas) 07-01-2013
Downloading of Interview Call Letters To be advised later on Bank’s website

State wise vacancy Details

 CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA   clerk recruitment vacancy details

CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA  clerk 2013

Educational Qualification: (As on 01/08/2011)
Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized
as such by the Central Government.
                                                     OR
A pass with 50% marks in HSC examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern) /11th Std. of (11+1+3)
pattern or Intermediate/Pre-University or any equivalent examination/Diploma in Banking
recognized by Central/State Government or U.T. administration.
                                                            OR
A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old pattern)/SSLC/10th
std.
Examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent

STATE / UT WISE, CATEGORY WISE CUT OFF MARKS (TWSS) IN CWE CONDUCTED BY IBPS
IN 2011-12 FOR RECRUITMENT IN CLERICAL CADRE

IBPS cut off marks fro central bank of India

IBPS cut off marks fro central bank of India

Complete Notification Details Central Bank of India PDF format

Central Bank of India official website  here : Central Bank of India

or Stay with us for Complete Notification details will update after published official notification here

IBPS RRB Recruitment 2013

IBPS RRB Recruitment 2013IBPS RRB Recruitment for office assistant and Officer scale jobs in various banks all over India recruitment started now . Candidates can check notification below

Check official website of IBPS More details  or www.ibps.in

Candidates Qualified in CWE - RRB Recruitment of Office Assistant / Officers Project can presently apply for following Banks:

  • Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank  recruitment 2012
  • Shreyas Gramin Bank recruitment
  • Karnataka Vikas Gramin Bank recruitment
  • Mizoram Rural Bank recruitment
  • South Malabar Gramin Bank recruitment (Starting 17th December 2012)
  • Baroda UP Gramin Bank recruitment (Starting 17th December 2012)
  • Deccan Grameena  Bank recruitment (Starting 19th December 2012)
  • Gurgaon  Gramin  Bank recruitment (Starting 20th December 2012)
  • Prathama Bank recruitment (Starting 27th December 2012)
  • Allahabad UP Gramin Bank recruitment (Starting 28th December 2012)

Candidates are requested to check the respective Bank's website for more information.

No change in personal information like Name, Date of Birth, Address, Category etc. is allowed.

Helpline Number: 022-29687111 (Available from 09:30 AM to 06:00 PM - Excluding Saturday and Sunday)

check regularly for updates on RRB(regional rural banks ) Recruitment in India for 2012-2013 news

All The best

Thursday 13 December 2012

IBPS model test for Clerk exam

Howdy ! here providing one set of practice for model test of IBPS clerk Online Exam Lets practice here ..all the best

1. In a class of forty students, Samir's rank from the top is twelfth. Alok is eight ranks below Samir. What is Alok’s rank from the bottom?

1) 20th 2) 21st 3) 22nd 4) 19th 5) None of these

 

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) Jowar 2) Paddy 3) Millet 4) Wheat 5) Sesame

 

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

1) None 2) One 3) Two4) Three 5) More than three

 

4. In a certain code DAYLONG is written as ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL written in that code ?

1) SPDCMBJ 2) SPDEMBJ

3) DPSCMBJ 4) SPDCJBM 5)None of these

 

5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word PREDICAMENT, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

1) M 2) N 3) E 4) X 5) Y

 

6. If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement ?

1) N 2) Q 3) J 4) M 5) None of these

 

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) March 2) January 3) July 4) June 5) May

 

8. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest?

1) M 2) R 3) M or R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

 

9. The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order from left to right?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

 

10. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 = ?

1) 36 2) 20 3) 36.5 4) 12 5) None of these

 

11. In a certain code ROBE is written as ‘5136’ and BIND is written as ‘3792’. How is RIDE written in that code?

1) 5276 2) 5726 3) 5376 4) 5326 5) None of these

 

12. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?

1) 30 metres 2) 80 metres 3) 50 metres 4) 20 meters 5) None of these

 

13. In a certain code ‘good and bad’ is written as ‘725’; ‘one and all’ is written as ‘9 3 2’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘1 5 4’. How is ‘one’ written in that code?

1) 9 2) 3 3) 2 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

 

14. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ENAL using each letter only once in each word?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

 

15. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second lowest number among the five numbers given below?

317 528 439 254 861

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5 5) 6

 

16. ‘BEAN’ is related to ‘NEAB’ and ‘SAID’ is related to ‘DAIS’ in the same way as ‘LIME’ is related to……

1) MLEI 2) ELMI 3) EIML 4) EILM 5) None of these

 

Directions (Q.17-23): In each of these questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

1) If only Conclusion I follows.

2) If only Conclusion II follows.

3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.

4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.

5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows.

17. Statements:

All poles are lights.

All lights are bulbs.

All bulbs are tubes.

Conclusions:

I.All tubes are poles. II.Some bulbs are poles.

 

18. Statements:

All tyres are wheels.

Some wheels are desks.

All desks are plates.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are wheels.

II. Some plates are tyres.

 

19. Statements:

Some Kites are threads.

Some threads are sticks.

All sticks are umbrellas.

Conclusions:

I. Some Kites are umbrellas.

II. Some umbrellas are threads.

 

20. Statements:

Some flowers are trees.

No tree is room.

Some rooms are hotels.

Conclusions:

I. Some hotels are flowers.

II. Some rooms are flowers.

 

21. Statements:

All jackets are shirts.

All shirts are trousers.

No trouser is bag.

Conclusions:

I. No jacket is bag. II. No bag is shirt.

 

22. Statements:

Some blades are knives.

Some knives are tables.

All books are tables.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are knives.

II. Some books are blades.

 

23. Statements:

All windows are houses.

All roads are houses.

Some houses are hills.

Conclusions:

I. Some hills are windows. II. No hill is window.

 

Directions (Q.24-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer these questions.

R 4 E J 5 T 1 A M Q 3 8 N

I K 7 W F 6 D 9 U 2 Y V

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) J54 2) 38M 3) 7WI 4) 2Y9 5) 8IQ

 

25. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

 

26. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

 

27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above arrangement?

1) I 2) N 3) K 4) 8 5) None of these

 

28. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of D?

1) T 2) A 3) V 4) J 5) None of these

 

29. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?

1) M 2) 9 3) W 4) 5 5) None of these

 

30. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

1) 8 2) D 3) I 4) T 5) None of these

 

Directions (Q. 31-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

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Directions (Q.41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it. Certain words/ expressions are printed in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Child psychology is certainly not a strong point with most Indian schools. Why else would it inflict a double trauma on a student faring badly in the pre-boards by banning her from taking the exams often with fatal results as evidenced by reports of students suicides in the run-up to the board. Now the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has stepped in and put the brakes on. This is good news for parents and students, many of whom have had to live with the threat of the performance - linked department. While schools' logic is that in order to attract talented students, they need to maintain their performance records at high levels, the assumption that a student faring poorly in the pre-boards will replicate this at the board is faulty. Chances are that the student will be spurred to work doubly hard. On the other hand, the threat of the department will almost certainly impact her performance adversely. Of course, linking pre-boards to the boards is only one of the problems with our system.

41. Which is good news for parents according to the passage?

1) Schools will take the responsibility of preparing students for the board.

2) Schools will provide study facilities to the poor students.

3) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure higher attendance of the students

4) No student can be barred from the boards without prior clearance from the CBSE.

5) Teachers will be able to handle students well if they know child psychology.

 

42. What is the ruling of the CBSE?

1) Students must pass the pre-board exam before appearing for the board exam.

2) Schools should follow the practice of performance - linked department.

3) Schools should maintain performance record of students of high level.

4) Schools must motivate students to work hard.

5) Before barring any student, the board schools must take prior permission of the CBSE.

 

43. What is the faulty assumption of schools according to the passage?

1) Students who do not do well at pre-boards will be motivated to work hard.

2) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore students take them lightly.

3) Students who fare poorly at the pre-board will fail at the boards.

4) Learning by rote is a better method of learning.

5) Students perform better in languages than in science subjects.

 

44. Which of the following according to the passage, is the problem with our school system?

1) Providing study facilities to the students.

2) Linking pre-board performance of the students to the boards.

3) Teachers' lack of knowledge of child psychology.

4) Attracting talented students.

5) Low percentage of students passing the board exam.

 

45. According to the passage parents had to live with the threat of

1) falling grades of their wards.

2) not getting their wards admitted in quality schools.

3) Schools not treating their wards with the attitude of counsellor.

4) Linking performance of their wards in preboards to boards.

5) Schools creating traumatic situation for their wards

 

46. Schools wanted to enforce performance – linked department in order to

1) get regular grant-in-aid from the education department.

2) improve their public image as a social institution.

3) attract better quality students.

4) make students aware that they would aspire for their all - round development.

5) provide better study material to the students.

 

47. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'replicate' as used in the passage.

1) enhance 2) repeat 3) perform 4) achieve 5) plunder

 

48. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'assumption' as used in the passage.

1) estimation 2) interpretation 3) intimidation 4) introduction 5) induction

 

49. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'spur'

1) depress 2) enlarge 3) explicate 4) sustain 5) activate

 

50. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'fatal'

1) precious 2) safe 3) ponderous 4) perilious 5) harmonious

 

Directions (51-60): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Communicating in (51) is fascinating, some even say (52). There are none of the physical (53) that, for good or bad, provide us with (54) judgement and about the people we meet there. No clothes, no hair, no age, no body (55). No smile to (56) a potentially sarcastic (57) is just a bit of (58). No conspiratorial whisper. Just computer type - face. That's why the (59) has given rise to a whole new set of (60) called emotions.

51. 1) computer 2) telephone 3) cyberspace 4) space 5) spot

52. 1) enchanting 2) magical 3) attracting 4) pleasing 5) agonising

53. 1) solutions 2) nature 3) keys 4) symbols 5) clues

54. 1) instant 2) simultaneous 3) total 4) distinct 5) instance

55. 1) dialect 2) symbols 3) symptoms 4) language 5) shape

56. 1) signal 2) testify 3) indicate 4) evidence 5) judge

57. 1) friendship 2) remark 3) ignorance 4) game 5) smile

58. 1) observation 2) notice 3) kidding 4) mention 5) bonding

59. 1) language 2) medium 3) agency 4) computer 5) treatise

60. 1) figures 2) badge 3) letters 4) symbols 5) emotions

Directions (61-65): In each sentence below, four words / group of words which are labelled (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. If all the four are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark (5) 'All correct' as the answer.

61. No contry (1)/ can isolate (2)/ itself from international (3)/ politics (4)/ All correct (5).

62. The peculiar (1)/ dress he wear (2)/ gave him a comical (3)/ appearance (4) / All correct (5).

63. To strengthen (1)/ his arguments (2)/ the lawyer showed to the judge some of the experts (3)/ from a magazine (4)/ All are correct (5).

64. The committee (1)/ underestimates (2)/ the efforts involved (3) and hence falls short of suggesting majors to solve the problem.(4)/ All are correct (5).

65. Jems (1)/ and jewellery (2)/ have very low export (3) / value (4) / All are correct (5).

Directions (66-75): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).

66. He was astonished to find, that (1)/ the gentry of the town (2)/ was not invited (3)/ to the party. (4)/ No error (5).

67. We told him that (1)/ being a fine day (2)/ we wanted to go on a picnic and (3)/ would come back before 6. P.M. (4) / No error (5).

68. It is quarter (1)/ to eight by my watch (2)/ though the clock (3)/ has struck eight.(4) / No error (5).

69. He is one of those (1) / cleverest boys that (2)/ has studied in this school (3) / and we still remember him. (4) / No error (5).

70. As he went through the forest (1)/ Ram marked the trees (2)/ to let the rest of the party knew (3)/ which way he had gone. (4)/ No error (5).

71. He took out his spare shirt (1)/ and was very disappointed (2)/ when he discovered that that (3)/ shirt is also torn. (4)/ No error (5).

72. Before the carpenter came (1)/ she covered the floor (2)/ with polythene sheeting (3)/ to protect the carpet. (4)/ No error (5).

73. If I would have realized (1)/ what a clumsy person you were (2)/ I would not have come (3)/ with you to this place. (4)/ No error (5).

74. While going to the office yesterday (1)/ he not only found a gold watch (2)/ but also a thousand rupee note (3)/ and was extremely delighted. (4)/ No error (5).

75. If I were in your position (1)/ I would have respected (2)/ the wishes my parents (3)/ and made them happy (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (Q.76-80): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A) The purpose of this review is to offload public investments from certain low priority areas.

B) The government has decided in principle to throw open to the private sector industries reserved for the public sector.

C) Only those industries are proposed to be reserved for the public sector which fall in the high priority areas.

D) In addition, the government is also engaged in a review of the existing portfolio of public investment.

E) This will enable the government to abolish the monopoly of any sector in the field of manufacture except these priority sectors.

76. Which of the following should come second in the paragraph?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

 

77. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

 

78. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

 

79. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

 

80. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

 

Directions (Q.81-100): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. 57834 + 12836 = ? + 43612

1) 27781 2) 26728 3) 26739 4) 27058 5) None of these

 

82. 46% of (?) = 1143.56

1) 3612 2) 2124 3) 2486 4) 3126 5) None of these

 

83. 14.8 × 13.2 × 8.3 = ?

1) 1621.488 2) 1525.431 3) 1625.564 4) 1665.623 5) None of these

 

84. 55% of 470 = 25% of ?

1) 1264 2) 1034 3) 1150 4) 924 5) None

 

85. 126 + 24 ÷ 6 − 3 × 4 = ?

1) 128 2) 13 3) 118 4) 88 5) None of these

 

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101. If the production of a factory grows at a rate of 6% p.a. what will be its production for the year 2011 if its production in 2009 was 270 lakh tonnes?

1) 303.372 lakh tonnes 2) 347.684 lakh tonnes 3) 308.246 lakh tonnes 4) 316.628 lakh tonnes

5) None of these

 

102. The area of a rectangular field is 1728 sq metres. If the field is 48 metres long, what is its perimeter?

1) 216 metres 2) 168 metres 3) 84 metres 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

 

103. A, B & C started a business by investing Rs.72000, Rs.81000 & Rs.90000 respectively. Find the share of B out of the annual profit of Rs.51300

1) 15200 2) 17100 3) 18600 4) 19000 5) None of these

 

104. In an examination it is required to get 320 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 32% marks and is declared failed by 64 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

1) 600 2) 850 3) 800 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

 

105. The cost of 12 Chairs and 16 Tables is Rs.4900. What is the cost of 9 Chairs and 12 Tables ?

1) Rs.7350 2) Rs.2550 3) Rs.3675 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

 

106. A train running at speed of 54 km/hour crosses a platform double its length in 24 seconds. What is the length of the train in metres?

1) 360 2) 120 3) 240 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

 

107. The difference between 67% of a number and 48% of the same number is 5130. What is 35% of that number?

1) 8795 2) 7630 3) 9156 4) 9450 5) None of these

 

108. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.12,000, at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. at the end of 2 years?

1) Rs.960 2) Rs.979.20 3) Rs.945.60 4) Rs.986.40 5) Rs.992.50

 

109. The average age of a man and his son is 57 years. The ratio of their ages is 12 : 7 respectively. What was the ratio of their ages 4 years ago?

1) 13 : 17 2) 19 : 32 3) 38 : 23 4) 34 : 19 5) None of these

 

110. What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following number series question?

5 13 29 61 125 253 ?

1) 509 2) 586 3) 567 4) 583 5) None of these

 

111. The average age of six employees in a department is 32 years. If the age of their officer is also added the average increases by 1. What is officer's age?

1) 32 years 2) 41 years 3) 39 years

4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these

 

112. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days. How many more men must be hired to complete the same work in 8 days?

1) 42 2) 14 3) 28 4) 16 5) None of these

 

113. 24 percent of first number is 36 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

1) 5 : 4 2) 4 : 3 3) 26 : 19 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

 

114. A man sells an article for Rs.2640 at a loss of 12%. Find for how much did he buy the article?

l) Rs.2850 2) Rs.3300 3) Rs.2800 4) Rs.3000 5) None of these

 

115. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will be 42% of that number?

1) 1164.66 2) 1152.68 3) 1128.96

4) 1182.44 5) None of these

 

116. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

39.793 ÷ 16.041 × 6.427 = ?

1) 13 2) 19 3) 22 4) 16 5) 0.5

 

117. In how many different number of ways can the letters of the word DEBATE be arranged?

1) 360 2) 720 3) 2520 4) 1440

5) None of these

 

118. If 279 is subtracted from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3202. What is that number?

1) 39 2) 47 3) 59 4) 68

5) None of these

 

119. In how many different number of ways can a committee of 3 persons be selected from 6 men and 2 women?

1) 336 2) 56 3) 28 4) 112

5) None of these

 

120. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.8950 at the end of 4 years is Rs.2148. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6

5) None of these

 

121. Present Cash Reserve Ratio is……………

1) 4.25% 2) 9.0% 3) 7.0% 4) 8.0% 5) 23.0%

 

122. Which among the following is not a private bank?

1) HDFC 2) ICICI 3) SBH

4) Axis Bank 5) Yes Bank

 

123. How many banks were nationalized by Smt. Indira Gandhi government in 1969?

1) 8 2) 20 3) 14 4) 19 5) 50

 

124. On 19th November 2012, World Peace and Prosperity Foundation conferred the bravery award on …… for her bravery and commitment to education for girls in adverse conditions in Swat, Pakistan?

1) Nasima Hones 2) Libana Younu

3) Hamida Begum 4) Nasinsa Yonu

5) Malala Yousafzai

 

125. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) details are given. Pick the wrong statement.

1) Non-Aligned Movement was founded in Belgrade in 1961

2) Presently there are 120 members

3) 16th Summit recently held in Tehran, Iran on 26-31 August 2012

4) Manmohan Singh is the present chairman of the summit

5) 17th Summit will be held in Caracas (Venezuela)

 

126. Which book not written by Chetan Bhagat?

1) 2 States 2) The 3 Mistakes of My Life 3) Swamy and His Friends

4) One Night @ the Call Center 5) Revolution 2020

 

127. 'Maa Thota' scheme in Andhra Pradesh sponsored by ……….

1) Andhra Bank 2) Union Bank of India

3) NABARD 4) NHB 5) RBI

 

128. On 6th October 2012, who granted $ 500 million for the success of Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) in India?

1) IMF 2) IDA 3) IFC 4) ADB 5) World Bank

 

129. A customer agreed to deposit some amount monthly to reap a huge amount on maturity date. This deposit is called………………..

1) Recurring account 2) Savings Account

3) Fixed Deposit 4) Current Account

5) Loan Account

 

130. The days list given. Pick the wrong one.

1) 1 October - International Day of the Elderly

2)14 November - National Diabetes Day

3) 24 October - United Nations Day

4) 27 September - World Tourism Day 5) None

 

131. 2012 ICC T20 world cup hosted by …………..

1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) South Africa

4) Australia 5) England

 

132. In which event, the Silver medal got by Vijay Kumar in London Olympics 2012?

1) Men’s Kabaddi

2) Men’s freestyle 60kg category in wrestling

3) 1000 m Hurdles

4) 25 m rapid fire pistol 5) Boxing

 

133. I am visiting Bangladesh. So I should have …………, which is a local currency?

1) Rial 2) Dinar 3) Rupiah 4) Taka 5) Peso

 

134. Financial inclusion means………

1) Providing banking services in rural areas with affordable cost

2) Providing corporate accounts in industrial area

3) Giving many joint accounts to save the money of banks

4) Not to allow the banks to open the branches in village area

5) All of the above

 

135. Which committee submitted a report on Micro Finance Sector?

1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Parthasarathy Shome

3) Y.H.Malegam 4) C.Rangarajan 5) Sri Krishna

 

136. 26th meeting of the International Monetary and

Financial Committee held on 12th October 2012 at ……………… attended by Chidambaram.

1) New Delhi 2) Tokyo 3) Rio

4) Washington 5) Manila

 

137. In 2012-13, the Public Sector Banks must disburse ……………for Agriculture Loans.

1) Rs.6.5 lakh Cr 2) Rs.3 lakh Cr

3) Rs.16 lakh Cr 4) Rs.6 lakh Cr

5) Rs 3.75 lakh Cr

 

138. BASEL committee stress on…………

1) Branch establishment 2) Risk management

3) Appointment of clerical staff in banks

4) Loans to business people 5) Green banking

 

139. The chief of World Bank is……………

1) Christine Legarde 2)Vineeth Verman 3) Dominique Strauss Kahn

4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 5) Jim Yong Kim

 

140. 19th International AIDS conference 2012 was held at………….. from July 22 to 27, 2012.

1) Washington DC 2) New York 3) Paris 4) Geneva 5) New Delhi

 

141. Paradip sea port is in the state of…………

1) Odisha 2) Goa 3) Andhra Pradesh 4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat

 

142. 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) GDP target is...

1) 8.2 percent 2) 9.5 percent 3) 9.0 percent

4) 9.2 percent 5) 10.25 percent

 

143. On 4th October 2012, to provide more powers to Forward Markets Commission, Union Cabinet approved the amendment of FCRA Bill. FCRA means…

1) Forward Contact Regularization Act

2) Front Contract Regulation Act

3) Forward Company Regulation Act

4) First Contract Regulation Act

5) Forward Contract Regulation Act

 

144. ‘Hyper inflation’ means……………

1) Inflation and Deflation occurs one after another

2) Extremely slow growth of inflation

3) Extreme inflation which is out of control

4) No inflation seen

5) Inflation is there but it is not seen

 

145. On 20th October 2012, Manmohan Singh launched Aadhaar-enabled service delivery system at....

1) Thambeli 2) Uppugundur 3) Bandlapalli

4) Manwel 5) Dudu

 

146. Punch Line used in the logo of ‘11th Conference of Parties ‘(COP-11) Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘Hyderabad is…………

1) Nature Protects if she is protected

2) Green Economy! Does it include you?

3) Save Earth, You are Protected

4) Plant Tree, It plants your future

5) Do not do harm to Nature

 

147. Who puts the signature on Rs.1 paper currency note?

1) RBI Governor 2) RBI Deputy Governor

3) Finance Secretary 4) Finance Minister

5) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission

 

148. On 29th Oct 2012, RBI decided to do open market operations worth of ……… by purchase of government securities.

1) Rs.14,000 Cr. 2) Rs.18,000 Cr. 3) Rs.4,000 Cr.

4) Rs.5,000 Cr. 5) Rs.12,000 Cr.

 

149. ……..is not the wing of World Bank Group.

1) MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency)

2) IDA (International Development Association)

3) IFC (International Finance Corporation)

4) ADB (Asian Development Bank)

5) IMF (International Monetary Fund)

 

150. The list of Noble Prize winners 2012 given. Pick the wrong one.

1) Serge Haroche of France and David J. Wineland of USA got Noble in Physics

2) Robert J. Lefkowitz and Brian K. Kobilka (both belong to USA) got Noble in Chemistry

3) Sir John B. Gurdon of UK and Shinya Yamanaka of Japan got Noble in Medicine

4) Mo Yan of China was conferred with Noble in Literature

5) Red cross was conferred with Noble in Peace

 

151. Which Scheme was introduced to encourage the savings of the small investors in domestic capital market investing up to Rs.50,000 in the share market directly?

1) Rajiv Gandhi Small Investors Scheme

2) Rajiv Gandhi Integrated Income Tax Scheme

3) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme

4) Rajiv Gandhi Investors Friendly Scheme

5) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Share Scheme

 

152. Pick the wrong statement relating to Syria.

1) Syria is in Africa having border with Lebanon, Turkey, Iraq and Jordan

2) Syria capital is Damascus

3) Syrian president is Bashar al Assad

4) There is civil war and the uprising against the President Bashar al Assad

5) UN -Arab League appointed Lakhdar Brahimi as the special envoy to Syria

 

153. On 3rd October 2012, Shubhalaxmi Panse took oath as the Chairperson and Managing Director (CMD) of..

1) Union Bank of India 2) Andhra Bank 3) ICICI

4) Punjab National Bank 5) Allahabad Bank

 

154. Who are the present Deputy Governors of RBI?

1) Depak Mohanthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan

2) D.Subba Rao, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and K.C.Chakravarthy

3) K.C.Chakravarthy,Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan

4) Raghuram Rajan, Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy and D.Subba Rao

5) Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy, Amartya Sen and Chidambaram

 

155. Round Revolution refers to the boosting production of ………………..

1) Tomato 2) Bamboo 3) Potato 4) Mango 5) Egg

 

156. Who was appointed as International Goodwill Ambassador for the United Nations Programme on HIV / AIDS (UNAIDS)?

1) Amitabh Bacchan 2) Sachin Tendulkar

3) Aishwarya Rai 4) Mahendra Singh Dhoni 5) Amir Khan

 

157. A person who expects share prices are going to decline is called ……………

1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Vostro 4) NRI 5) Stale

 

158. Periyar Tiger Reserve is in the state of………..

1) Kerala 2) Andhra Pradesh

3) Tamilnadu 4) Bihar 5) Goa

 

159. In the World Economic Forum Global Competitiveness Index 2012-13, India’s rank is..

1) 100 2) 75 3) 15 4) 59 5) 109

 

160. Sports terms are given. Pick up incorrect one.

1) Cricket - Appeal, Beamer, China man, Fine Leg, Hat-trick, Umpire Decision Review System.

2) Chess - Bishop, Capture, Grand Master, King, Pawn, Queen, Rook, Stalemate

3) Basket Ball - Basket, Blocking, Free Throw, Jump Ball, Multiple Throws

4) Hockey - Advantage, Bully, Corner, Free-hit, Goal Line, Green Card, LBW

5) Tennis - Ace, Break point, Court, Deuce, Fault, Grand Slam, Love, Referee, Set

 

161. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called:

1) Information engines 2) Locator Engines

3) Web Browsers 4) Resource Locators 5) Search Engines

 

162. Which of the following parts of computer does arithmetical calculations?

1) OS 2) ALU 3) CPU 4) Memory 5) Printer

 

163. Peripheral devices such as Printer, Keyboard, Speakers are considered to be:

1) Hardware 2) Software 3) Data

4) Information 5) None of these

 

164. Which of the following is not true about Control Unit?

1) Implementing Instruction set of the CPU

2) It performs Fetching and Decoding

3) It coordinates the component of a computer system

4) It manages the computer resources 5) All are true

 

165. The computers which are generally used for engineering applications, which require relatively high quality graphic capabilities are called:

1) Mainframe Computers 2) Mini Computer

3) Super Computer

4) Workstation

5) None of these

 

166. USB is the acronym for:

1) Universal Security Block

2) Universal Security Bus

3) Universal Serial Bus 4) Under Security Block

5) None of these

 

167. Fourth Generation computers contain:

1) Vacuum tubes 2) Transistors 3) LSI

4) Microprocessors 5) None of the above

 

168. Which of the following is a permanent memory?

1) ROM 2) PROM 3) RAM

4) DRAM 5) Both 1 and 2

 

169. Which of the following is the fastest memory?

1) Cache 2) RAM 3) ROM

4) HDD 5) Registers

 

170. “TUX” is the term associated with which of the following ?

1) Google 2) Yahoo 3) Linux 4) Windows 5) Mac

 

171. The access method used in Magnetic tape is:

1) Random 2) Sequential 3) Serial

4) Direct 5) Parallel

 

172. Which of the following data transmission method allows simultaneous bi-directional data

1) Simplex 2) Half duplex

3) Duplex 4) Digital 5) Analog

 

173. Expand MP4

1) Music Player 4 2) MPEG layer 4

3) Movie Player 4 4) All the above

5) None of the above

 

174. The bar which is usually located at the bottom of the desktop of Windows XP is known as:

1) Task bar 2) Icon 3) Start menu

4) Menu bar 5) Control panel

 

175. The most reliable network topology is:

1) Mesh Topology 2) Bus Topology

3) Star Topology 4) Ring Topology

5) Tree Topology

 

176. Which of the following is an example of transmission media?

1) Fiber Optics 2) Coaxial Cable

3) Microwaves 4) Satellites 5) All the above

 

177. Which of the following units decodes data and presents it to the user is:

1) Output Unit 2) Memory Unit

3) Control Unit 4) Arithmetic and Logical Unit

5) Central Processing Unit

 

178. Which of the following is a part of CPU?

1) Monitor 2) Keyboard 3) Control Unit

4) Mouse 5) Joystick

 

179. Which of the following converts an entire program into Machine Language?

1) Compiler 2) Interpreter

3) Translator 4) CPU 5) All the above

 

180. ..... are privately-owned network within a single building or a campus of up to a few kilometers in size.

1) LAN 2) WAN 3) MAN

4) Internet 5) All the above

 

181. In MS word, a green line under a word means it is :

1) Grammatically Incorrect 2) No specific meaning

3) Spelling mistake 4) All the above

5) None of the above

 

182. RAM stands for:

1) Read Access Memory 2) Random Access Memory

3) Reading Accessing Memory

4) Random Address Memory 5) None of these

 

183. The short cut key in Windows XP to copy the selection is:

1) Ctrl + X 2) Ctrl + V 3) Ctrl + C

4) Ctrl + Y 5) Alt + C

 

184. HTML stands for:

1) Hyper Transfer Model Language

2) Hyper Transfer Markup Language

3) Hyper Text Model Language

4) Hyper Text Mark-up Language

5) None of these

 

185. Which of the following is a personal, online journal that appears on a website?

1) Wiki 2) IM 3) Blog 4) Email 5) Chat room

 

186. A .... is used to connect a computer to a network

1) Network Intermediate Unit

2) Network Interconnection Card

3) Network Interface Card

4) Network Conversion Card 5) None of these

 

187. A ........... is a privately owned 'Organization-Wide' network.

1) Internet 2) Intranet 3) Subnet

4) Monnet 5) None of the above

 

188. Which of the following technology is used for Internet Connectivity?

1) ISDN 2) Dial UP 3) Broadband

4) Wireless 5) All the above

 

189. Sending already received email to another recipient is:

1) Replying 2) Forwarding 3) Answering

4) Drafting 5) None of the above

 

190. Which of the following is a valid power point view?

1) Normal View 2) Slide Sorter View

3) Note Page View 4) Slide Show View

5) All the above

 

191. Which of the following memory allows simultaneous read and write operation?

1) RAM 2) EPROM 3) EEPROM

4) ROM 5) EAPROM

 

192. A....... enables traffic between two networks

1) Gateway Server 2) Web Server

3) E mail server 4) Database server

5) None of the above

 

193. Pick the odd one out.

1) Microsoft 2) Ubuntu 3) Windows XP

4) MAC 5) Unix

 

194. Function key to get help is:

1) F1 2) F2 3) F3 4) F4 5) F12

 

195. Which of the following is the way of connecting computer in a network?

1) LAN 2) Internet 3) Intranet 4) MAN 5) Topology

 

196. .... is a set of software components that adds specific abilities to a larger software application?

1) Gateway 2) Internet 3) Patch

4) Plugin 5) None of these

 

197. What is an email attachment?

1) A receipt sent by the recipient

2) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail

3) A malicious Virus that feeds on the messages and destroys the contents

4) A list of CC or BCC recipients

5) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly

 

198. A ... is a pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.

1) Guide 2) Model 3) Ruler

4) Template 5) None of these

 

199. Linux is an example of:

1) Freeware 2) Open source software

3) Shareware 4) Complimentary

5) None of these

 

200. In Windows XP, ...... shows the files, folders and drives on the computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to the another?

1) Microsoft Internet Explorer

2) Windows Explorer 3) My Computer

4) Folders Manager 5) Windows Locator

IBPS Model test Answers :

1-2; 2-5; 3-3; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-1; 9-4; 10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-3; 15-1; 16-3; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-4; 21-5; 22-4; 23-3; 24-5; 25-3; 26-3; 27-1; 28-1; 29-4; 30-2;

31-3; 32-1; 33-2; 34-3; 35-5; 36-3; 37-2; 38-1; 39-1; 40-3; 41-4; 42-5; 43-3; 44-2; 45-4; 46-3; 47-2; 48-1; 49-1; 50-2; 51-3; 52-1; 53-5; 54-1; 55-4; 56-3; 57-2; 58-3; 59-2; 60-4;

61-1; 62-2; 63-3; 64-4; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2; 68-1; 69-3; 70-3; 71-4; 72-2; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-3; 77-1; 78-4; 79-2; 80-5; 81-4; 82-3; 83-1; 84-2; 85-3; 86-4; 87-4; 88-1; 89-3; 90-2;

91-5; 92-2; 93- 4; 94-1; 95-3; 96-4; 97-2; 98-5; 99-3; 100-4; 101-1; 102-2; 103-2; 104-3; 105-3; 106-2; 107-4; 108-2; 109-4; 110-1; 111-3; 112-2; 113-5; 114-4; 115- 3; 116-4; 117-1; 118-3; 119-2;

120-4; 121-1; 122-3; 123-3; 124-5; 125-4; 126-3; 127-3; 128-5; 129-1; 130-5; 131-2; 132-4; 133-4; 134-1; 135-3; 136-2; 137-4; 138-2; 139-5; 140-1; 141-1; 142-1; 143-5; 144-3; 145-5; 146-1; 147-3;

148-5; 149-4; 150-5; 151-3; 152-1; 153-5; 154-3; 155-3; 156-3; 157-1; 158-1; 159-4; 160-4; 161-5; 162-2; 163-1; 164-5; 165-4; 166-3; 167-4; 168-5; 169-5; 170-3; 171-2; 172-3; 173-2; 174-1; 175-1; 176-5; 177-1; 178-3; 179-1; 180-1; 181-1; 182-2; 183-3; 184-4; 185-3; 186-3; 187-2; 188-5; 189-2; 190-5; 191-1; 192-1; 193-1; 194-1; 195-5; 196-4; 197-2; 198-4; 199-2; 200-2.

Wednesday 12 December 2012

IBPS PO common interview Questions

IBPS conducting Common personnel interview for Bank PO Jobs for who qualified in IBPS CWE PO-II. lets come into point which type of question are asking in interview.. yea its interview like a bank interview previously conducted by various bank or its different .which type of questions are asking   why because these questions IBPS Conducting interview through various agencies Interview panel .
this page will update with IBPS Common interview Questions with Answers
top 100 Questions for IBPS PO Common Personnel Interview 2013-14 : here
Stick with us for updates

IBPS PO Common interview Experience

IIBPS_PO_Common_interview_Experiencenstitute of Banking Personnel Selection- IBPS tentatively fixed dates 2013  for Common Personal Interview For IBPS PO-II qualified. this is first time to conducting common personnel interview for Bank job of probationary officer post for year of 2013.this is lot of benefits for  who attend the previous interview in various banks ,yea experience is make it job in good way so try to study maximum interview experience.

some interview experience providing here check it out   

Most of Aspirants searching for New interview experience for IBPS Common interview Experience and IBPS Common interview questions answer for to prepare and attend further interview ..so please who have interview experience on IBPS PO Common interview experience can share with me on among through e-mail to me  : My email ID --

IBPS PO Common Interview Schedule start from 14 January 2013

IBPS PO Common Interview ScheduleInstitute of Banking Personnel Selection-IBPS already Announced for PO Common interview news in Official website and  India’s leading Newspaper about it. now applicants are preparing for interview section. after interview successful candidates will shortlist for merit of order by IBPS. IBPS PO Common interview is most important for Candidates when you miss this chance you need to wait for one year .IBPS PO interview experience is most Important note it or underline it. Common interview dates schedules tentatively started from January14,  2013 to  not mentioned but results will declare third week of February and allotment will out in march 2013. lets search for previous PO Interview experience for better to face one time interview for Probationary Officer . check for details and instruction to the candidates and way of selection of merit list and allotment in 20 PSBs in All over India as probationary officer jobs in 2013  : read complete details Article

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IBPS PO Common Interview

IBPS PO Common interview 2013IBPS (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection) announced Common Interview for PO-II-2012-2013.IBPS Announced exam dates exams start from 14 January 2013.IBPS PO Common interview Notification published IBPS official website On WWW.IBPS.IN : Download here official Notification as PDF format

Who had declared successfully IBPS PO-II CWE and Eligible candidates can attend their Interview after 14 January .IBPS PO-I CWE score card has expired today on 12-12-2012.

Important dates to Remember for IBPS PO Common interview 2013  

i. Download of call letters for Common Interview After 01.01.2013
ii. Conduct of Interview 14.01.2013 onwards
iii. Declaration of result of Common Interview Mid February 2013
iv. Notification of vacancies of each of the Participating Banks Third week of February 2013
v. Registration of order of preference for banks by the successful candidates Fourth week of February 2013
vi. Allotment March 2013

IBPS Common Interview : Merit list Declaring and Allotment procedure

  • IBPS will subsequently declare the result of Common Interview and will issue a notification giving the vacancies in
    Participating PSBs
  • The order of preference of banks will be obtained from successful candidates through a registration
    process which will be available on IBPS website
  • Candidates, successful in both the CWE-PO/MT-II and Common
    Interview will be listed in the order of merit. Depending on the vacancies in each bank of his/ her preference, a successful
    candidate will receive through a computerised system an offer from one of the Participating PSBs.
  • Vacancies remaining  unfilled on account of candidates declining offer, will be filled from among the remaining candidates, through subsequent
    iterations

IBPS Communication with Candidates :

  • An email and SMS intimation regarding the date,  time and centre of Common Interview will be sent to candidates to the details specified by the candidate in the online  application form while registering for CWE PO/MT-II. Candidates are also advised to regularly keep in touch with the
    IBPS website for updates.
  • Candidates will be required to download their call letters from IBPS website in the first week
    of January 2013. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview will not be entertained.
    However the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview by the conducting agencies is reserved.

Instructions to Candidates from IBPS :

  • Please note that the eligibility criteria specified in our above referred advertisement published in Employment
    News are the basic criteria for applying for the post.
  • Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents  in support of their identity and eligibility pertaining to nationality, age, educational qualifications, qualifying  marks, category etc
  • Merely applying for CWE/ appearing for and qualifying in the examination and/or in the  subsequent interview does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be offered employment in any of  the  Participating PSBs.

Download IBPS PO Common interview call letter/admit card / Hall ticket

Monday 10 December 2012

Canara bank clerk 3rd list

Canara Bank Notified Clerks 3rd waiting list After few days. lets check your all states candidates list and Cut off marks Third List of State / Union Territory wise Provisionally Selected Candidates for the post of Probationary Clerks, in place of candidates who did not join the Bank from the list published earlier. Please note that the provisional selection is subject to furnishing necessary proof with regard to educational qualification and caste / PWD certificate as per Government of India format itself, wherever applicable. In case of OBC certificate, wherever applicable, should not be more than one year old.

State / Union Territory wise details

Check here list

State / Union Territory wise Cut-off Marks

Check here cut off

We wish all the candidates Good Luck!!

Sunday 9 December 2012

DENA Bank waiting list for PO

DENA Bank waiting list for POFinally Dena bank coming with news on 4th Waiting list for PO Recruitment 2012 Who waiting for the list can check here..

Recruitment of Probationary Officers - Release of 4th Waitlist

Stay with us for more updates

Congrats for who in

Thursday 6 December 2012

KARNATAKA VIKAS GRAMEENA BANK Recruitment 2012

KARNATAKA VIKAS GRAMEENA BANK Recruitment 2012 Announced notification for Office assistant(Multipurpose) and Officer scale –I . from Eligible candidates  who have appeared at  the Common Written Examination for RRBs  conducted by IBPS in  September 2012 and declared  qualified.

Important dates to remember :

Payment of Application Fees 11-12-2012 to 26-12-2012
Opening date for Online Registration 11-12-2012
Last Date for Online Registration  26-12-2012

VACANCIES DETAILS

KARNATAKA VIKAS GRAMEENA BANK Recruitment 2012

PROBATION PERIOD

post of Officer Scale-I -2 years

Office Assistant  (Multipurpose) -- period of 1 year

AGE (As on 1.6.2012)

For Officer Scale- I Above 18 years -  Below 28 years
For Office Assistant      Between  18 years and 28 years

Educational Qualification:

Office Assistant (Multipurpose) :

(i) Bachelor Degree or its equivalent of a recognized  University in any discipline;
(ii) Proficiency in local language*(Please see the note below)
(iii) Desirable: Knowledge of Computer skills

Officer Scale-I

(i) Bachelor Degree of a recognized University in any Discipline or its equivalent Preference will be given to the candidates having degree  in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering,       Pisciculture,  Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation,   Information Technology, Management Law, Economics and Accountancy
(ii) Proficiency in local language*(Please see the note below)
(iii) Computer knowledge or awareness will be an added  qualification

Further details like IBPS CWE cur off ,AGE relaxation details visit here

Download notification PDF format here

Must Read 15 General awareness Questions for IBPS Clerk Exam

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection(IBPS ) announced exam dates for clerk dates are 15 December ,16 December,22 December & 23 December 2012. so here providing some general awareness questions for IBPS bank exam  of clerk .might check your practice test for solved question. 

1. Who became Miss World 2012?
(a) Denise Perrier
(b) Yu Wenxia
(c) Marita Lindah
(d) Azra Akin

2.The sensitive index of National stock Exchange of India is popularly known as
(a) SENSEX
(b) CRIS
(c) CSE
(d) MCX
(e) Nifty

3.Which Country won the most number of Gold Medals in the first Olympic Games?
(a) United States
(b) Germany
(c) Greece
(d) Australia

4.Who Officially opened the first Olympic games ?
(a) Prince Andrew
(b) Constantine I
(c) Otto
(d) King George I

5. The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true?
1. The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore.
2. The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km
3. Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation works
4. The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley.
(a) 3 & 5
(b) Only 4
(c) Only 2
(d) 3 & 4

6.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 May 2012 raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to what percent?
(a) 1%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 3.3%
(d) 3%

7. Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) State Bank of Maharashtra
(d) Syndicate Bank

8. Which of the following banks filed a criminal complaint against Sterling Biotech, and its six directors, for allegedly defaulting on repayments on credit facilities provided by the public sector lender?
(a) State Bank of Travancore
(b) State Bank of Mysore
(c) State Bank of Patiala
(d) State Bank of Indore

9. Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Inc to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology?
(a) Union Bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Syndicate Bank
(d) Corp Bank

10. Who is the author of the novel ‘The White Tiger’?
(a) Paul Krugman
(b) Arvind Adiga
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri
(d) Steve Waugh

11.Which book is not written by Chetan Bhagat?
(a) A House for Mr. Biswas
(b) The 3 Mistakes of my life
(c) 5 Point Someone
(d) A Bend in the River

12. Who won the Miss India Earth Title in Pantaloon Femina Miss India 2012?
(a) Vanya Mishra
(b) Rochelle Maria
(c) Prachi Mishra
(d) Gargi Gupta

13.  The Country which has accepted UN peace plan to end violence in the Country is:
(a) Iraq
(b) Jordan
(c) Syria
(d) Yeman

14.  Name the person who was appointed as the new chairman of the High Level Committee on
Financing Infrastructure on 16 July 2012.
(a) Deepak Parekh
(b) Adi Godrej
(c) KP Singh
(d) None of these

15.  The Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 16 July 2012 decided to appoint Arun
Mishra as the Chief of Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). Name the personwho was
replaced by him to the top post?
(a) EK Bharatbhushan
(b) Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi
(c) Rahul Khullar
(d) None of the above

Answers :

1.B 2. A 3. A 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.D 8.B  9.C 10.B 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. A

Tips and Strategy for IBPS clerk online exam

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS )declared exam dates for online exam. now candidates are ready to move for exam.then what’s DO’s & Don'ts for exam is big confusion IBPS going to conduct Online exam first time CWE. so Candidates also some confusion, this article shows important instruction for exam : Exam Tips Strategy. this is final touch for Aspirants .It is estimated that online scrap answers  so it appears that extreme caution should be taken for the test. Read assessment before indicating login and applying Answers carefully.

Tips and Strategy for IBPS clerk online exam utmost accuracy is needed for each test so take confidential step on while answering. in case you found difficulty question let ignore /skip it out. have chance to answer skipped questions in exam end in case have a time. no worry about questions ignoring.Candidates have to secure minimum cut off marks in Each section is mandatory determined total weightage score  .  so take care on all test don’t  neglect any section. don’t utilise more time in one test.spend time on apportion the judiciously as given. therefore indicating answer take careful because negative marking provision is there penalty marks deducting for each wrong answer of 0.25 marks .  

The Assessment comprise of test is Five sections :

(i)   Reasoning (ii) English Language
(iii) Numerical Ability (iv) General Awareness with special reference to the Banking Industry
(v) Computer Knowledge

Which documents and things to bring for this exam : IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

(i) Call letter with your recent passport size photograph affixed thereon.
(ii) Photo identity proof such as Passport/PAN Card/ Driving License/Voter’s Card/Bank passbook with photograph/Photo Identity Proof issued by a Gazetted Officer or People’s Representative along with a photograph/Identity card issued by a recognised college/University/Aadhar card with
photograph/Employee ID in original as well as a photocopy.
(iii) One ball point pen.

GENERAL  INSTRUCTIONS to Candidates :

1. Particulars to be Noted : Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date of Exam., Time and Venue for the examination given in the call letter. Please also note that this call letter does not comprise an offer of employment by any bank.

2. Punctuality in Attendance : You should be present at the examination hall before the time given in the call letter. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall.

3. Call letter to be Surrendered : Bring this call letter along with the photo identity proof in original and a photocopy with you when you come to the venue for the examination. Write your Roll No. & Registration No. On the photocopy of photo identity proof. You will not be permitted to appear for the examination if you do not bring the call letter along with the photo identity proof in original and a photocopy. You will be required to put your left thumb impression and sign in the respective spaces provided on your call letter in the presence of the invigilator in the examination hall. You should hand over your call letter along with the photocopy of the photo identity proof duly stapled together to the invigilator in the examination hall, when he collects the call letters from the candidates.

4. Compliance with Instructions : You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and the invigilators at all the stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.

5. Use of Books, Notes and Copying or Receiving/Giving Assistance Not Allowed : No calculator, separate or with watch, pagers, cell phones, books, slide rules, foot rules, note-books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall. Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving or giving assistance will be disqualified.

6. Do not leave your seat unless you are allowed.

7. Use of Stationery : You must bring a ball point pen with you.

8. Rough work to be done on the sheet provided : You should do all the necessary rough work on sheet provided only. After the test is over, you should hand over the sheet, given for rough work to the invigilator before leaving the room.

9. Travelling Allowance not admissible : No travelling allowance or other expenses in connection with the examination will be paid.

Details about IBPS On-line Test Pattern

1. A login screen will be displayed to the candidate. The candidate has to log in using his/her User ID and Password.

2. After logging in, the instructions will be displayed on the screen.

3. A candidate should read the instructions carefully and indicate that he has done so by ‘checking’ (click) the box at the bottom of the screen, after which the ‘I am ready to begin’ button is activated.

4. After clicking on the ‘I am ready to begin’ button the actual test time will begin.

5. There are 200 questions and each question is followed by 5 alternatives/options numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

6. The total marks for the test are 200.

7. The questions except those on English Language will be available in Hindi and in English. In order to view a given question in the other language, a candidate can click on the ‘view in’ drop down box and select the desired language.

8. Only one question will be displayed at a time

9. In order to answer a question, the candidate has to ‘mouse click’ the option he/she thinks is appropriate/ correct. The alternative which has been clicked on will be highlighted and shall be treated as the answer given by the candidate for the question.

10. After selecting an answer for a question the candidate should click on the ‘SAVE & NEXT’ button to save his answer and proceed to the next question. Note that without clicking on ‘Save & Next’ button the answer selected for a question will not be saved.

11. In case a candidate does not wish to attempt the question then he/ she should not click on any option for that question. A candidate can choose to deselect his/her answer for a particular question by clicking on the ‘CLEAR RESPONSE’ button provided against each question.

12. In case a candidate wants to skip a particular question and return to it later before submitting his/her test or a candidate ‘clicks’ (selects) an answer for a particular question but wishes to review it later, he/she may note down the question number on the sheet provided. In such cases the candidate may also click on the ‘MARK FOR REVIEW & NEXT’ button. In case an answer has been selected for a particular question which has been marked as ‘MARK FOR REVIEW & NEXT’, the answer marked will be taken for final evaluation.

13. The question numbers of attempted and un-attempted questions are also shown to the right of the screen. A candidate can then click on any of the question numbers to view the question, in order to attempt/ revise his/her answer to the question.

14. Each question number will be displayed in a particular colour depending on the status of the question:

White : Not visited : Question has not been viewed/ attempted

Red : Not Answered : Question has been viewed but not answered

Green : Answered : Question has been answered

Violet : Marked : Question has been marked for review later

15. Candidates are not permitted to submit their answers before the entire test time i.e 120 minutes is over.

16. A candidate can navigate between questions by clicking on the question number displayed to the right of the screen.

17. When a candidate clicks on a particular question, it takes some time for the question to appear. The time lost is not deducted from the total time allotted for the test.

18. Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam starts as this will lock the exam.

About the Submission

1. Candidates are not permitted to submit their answers before the entire test time is over.

2. A candidate can only change his/ her answer before clicking the ‘Submit’ button.

3. After the expiry of the exam duration, candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.

A candidate’s answers would be automatically saved by the computer system even if he has not clicked the ‘Submit’ button.

ALL THE BEST FOR ALL ASPIRANTS

IF ANY QUESTIONS ON MIND ASK US

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